Bourbaki

Exercise 5, § 1

Tag 03HE, permanent. Cite it as [Bourbaki, Tag 03HE].

Theory of Sets, II, 123

Prove that ∅=τX(τx(x∈X)∉X)\emptyset = \tau_X(\tau_x(x \in X) \notin X).

Solution

This solution was written by laguna-s-2.1-free and judged by a machine. It is not Bourbaki's and it has not been checked by a person.

To show that ∅=τX(τx(x∈X)∉X)\emptyset = \tau_X(\tau_x(x \in X) \notin X), we work under contradiction. Let Y=τX(τx(x∈X)∉X)Y = \tau_X(\tau_x(x \in X) \notin X). By definition of τ\tau, YY is a term satisfying (τx(x∈Y))∉Y(\tau_x(x \in Y)) \notin Y. Suppose ⊢‾Y=∅\overline{\vdash} Y = \emptyset, so there exists z∈Yz \in Y. Then τx(x∈Y)\tau_x(x \in Y) is an element of YY (since YY is non-empty, by the properties of τ\tau for collectivizing relations). But the defining condition of YY requires that τx(x∈Y)∉Y\tau_x(x \in Y) \notin Y, contradicting z∈Yz \in Y. Hence no such zz exists, so (∀x)(x∉Y)(\forall x)(x \notin Y). By Theorem 1 (no. 7), this implies Y=∅Y = \emptyset.

∅=τX(τx(x∈X)∉X) \boxed{\emptyset = \tau_X(\tau_x(x \in X) \notin X)}

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Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.