Let K be a commutative field with at least 4 elements. Let G be the group of matrices (α0αβ−1) where α∈K∗,β∈K. Let G′ be the group
of such matrices such that α=1. Then G′=(G,G).
If α,α′∈K∗ and β,β′∈K,
(αβ)((α′β′)((αβ)−1(α′β′)−1
0 α−1 0 α′−1 0 α−1 0 α′−1
=(1−α′β′−αβα′2+α2α′β′+αβ)
0 1
In particular,
(1β)((α′ 0 )((1β)−1(α′ 0 )−1=(1β(1−α′2)).
0 1 0 α′−1 0 1 0 α′−1 0 1
But there exists α0′∈K∗ such that α0′=1 and α0′=−1, and then k.(1−α0′2) =k, hence the lemma.
Bourbaki sets the proof directly after the statement, and the corpus does not separate them, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.
Nothing.