Let(Xι)ι∈Ibe a family of sets. Then there exists a set X with the following property : X is the union of a family(Xι′)ι∈Iof mutually disjoint sets such that for eachι∈Ithere exists a one-to-one mapping ofXιontoXι′.
Let A=⋃ι∈IXι. If ι∈I, the mapping x→(x,ι)(x∈Xι) is a one-to-one mapping of Xι onto a subset Xι′ of A×I. Moreover, the image of Xι′ under the second coordinate function on A×I is contained in the set {ι}; it follows that Xι′∩Xϰ′=∅ whenever ι=ϰ. We may then take X=⋃ι∈IXι′.
Bourbaki sets the proof directly after the statement, and the corpus does not separate them, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.