Bourbaki

Example 1

Tag 03TC, permanent. Cite it as [Bourbaki, Tag 03TC].

Theory of Sets, chapter III, § 6. Infinite sets

Suppose that aa is an element of a set EE and that S{u}S\{u\} is the term g(u)g(u), where gg is a mapping of EE into itself [^3]. Then it is immediately seen by induction on nn that for all n∈Nn \in \mathbf{N} we have f(n)∈Ef(n) \in E; consequently ff is a mapping of N\mathbf{N} into EE such that f(0)=af(0) = a and f(n+1)=g(f(n))f(n+1) = g(f(n)) for all integers nn.

Likewise, let hh be a mapping of N×E\mathbf{N} \times E into EE, and let ψ\psi be the mapping of N×E\mathbf{N} \times E into itself defined by ψ(n,x)=(n+1,h(n,x))\psi(n, x) = (n+1, h(n, x)). By the preceding discussion there exists a unique mapping g=(θ,f)g = (\theta, f) of N\mathbf{N} into N×E\mathbf{N} \times E such that g(0)=(0,a)g(0) = (0, a) and g(n+1)=ψ(g(n))g(n+1) = \psi(g(n)) for all nn, from which follows the existence and uniqueness of a mapping ff of N\mathbf{N} into E such that f(0)=af(0) = a and f(n+1)=h(n,f(n))f(n + 1) = h(n, f(n)) for each integer nn.

Bourbaki sets the proof directly after the statement, and the corpus does not separate them, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.

Cited by

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Cites

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Transcribed from the printed edition, 2004, Springer. Not translated.