Suppose that the two lines of (4) are exact. Then:
(i) If h is injective, one has
Im(g)∩Im(u′)=Im(u′∘f)=Im(g∘u).(5)
(ii) If f is surjective, one has
Ker(g)+Im(u)=Ker(v′∘g)=Ker(h∘v).(6)
Let us prove (i). It is clear that one has
Im(u′∘f)=Im(g∘u)⊂Im(g)∩Im(u′).
Inverse support, let y′∈Im(g)∩Im(u′). There exists y∈N such that y′=g(y). Since v′∘u′=0, we have 0=v′(y′)=v′(g(y))=h(v(y)), whence v(y)=0 since h is injective. Since (u,v) is an exact sequence, there exists x∈M such that y=u(x), whence y′=g(u(x)).
Let us prove (ii). Since v∘u=0 and v′∘u′=0, it is clear that
Ker(g)+Im(u)⊂Ker(v′∘g)=Ker(h∘v).
Conversely, let y∈Ker(v′∘g). Then g(y)∈Ker(v′), and there exists x′∈M′ such that u′(x′)=g(y) since the sequence (u′,v′) is exact. Since f is surjective, there exists x∈M such that f(x)=x′, whence g(y)=u′(f(x))=g(u(x)); we conclude that y−u(x)∈Ker(g), which completes the proof.
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.