Bourbaki

Exercise 2, § 4

Algebra, X, p. 184

Let p:A→Bp:A\to B be a homomorphism of rings, M an A-module. Now prove that the following properties are equivalent:

α) One has Tor⁡1A(p∗(P),M)=0\operatorname{Tor}^A_1(p_*(P),M)=0 for every B-module on the right P.

EXERCISES

β) One has Tor^A_1(ρ_*(P), M) = 0 for every monogenic B-module on the right P. γ) The B-module B ⊗_A M is flat, and one has Tor^A_1(B, M) = 0. (To see that γ) implies α), consider an exact sequence 0 → R → L → P → 0 of B-modules on the right, where L is free.)

Solution

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Machine translation of the English, by gpt-5-6-mini. Not checked by a person. That model is a cut down version of the one the rest of this language was written by.