Bourbaki

Exercise 11, § 2

Functions of a Real Variable, VI, p. 25

a) Let pp be a prime number ≠2\neq 2. Then the following properties are equivalent: α) bn/n≢0(modp)b_n/n \not\equiv 0 \pmod{p} for every even nn such that p−1p - 1 does not divide nn. β) bn≢0(modp)b_n \not\equiv 0 \pmod{p} for n=2,4,6,…,p−3n = 2, 4, 6, \ldots, p - 3. (Use Exercise 9b.) b) One says that pp is a regular prime number if it is equal to 2 or satisfies the equivalent conditions of a); otherwise pp is said to be irregular. The prime numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 are regular; 691 is irregular. Let II be a finite set of irregular prime numbers. Let nn be an integer ≥2\geq 2 multiple of ∏q∈I(q−1)\prod_{q \in I} (q - 1) and such that ∣bn/n∣>1|b_n/n| > 1, (cf. VI, p. 19, formula (15)). Let pp be a prime factor of the numerator of ∣bn/n∣|b_n/n| put in irreducible form. Prove that p−1p - 1 does not divide nn and consequently that pp is irregular. Deduce that the set of irregular prime numbers is infinite.

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