Bourbaki

Exercise 11, § 2

Functions of a Real Variable, VI, 295

a) Let p be a prime number ≠2\neq 2. Then the following properties are equivalent:

α)\alpha) bn/n≢0b_n/n \not\equiv 0 (mod. p) for every even n such that p−1p - 1 does not divide n.

β)\beta) bn≢0b_n \not\equiv 0 (mod. p) for n=2,4,6,…,p−3n = 2, 4, 6, \ldots, p - 3. (Use exerc. 9b).)

b) One says that p is a regular prime number if it is equal to 2 or satisfies the equivalent conditions of a); otherwise p is called irregular. The prime numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 are regular; 691 is irregular. Let I be a finite set of irregular primes. Let n be an integer ⩾2\geqslant 2 multiple of ∏q∈I(q−1)\prod_{q \in I} (q - 1) and such that ∣bn/n∣>1|b_n/n| > 1, (cf. VI, p. 288, formula (15)). Let p be a prime factor of the numerator of ∣bn/n∣|b_n/n| in irreducible form. Show that p−1p - 1 does not divide n and that consequently p is irregular. Deduce that the set of irregular prime numbers is infinite.

Solution

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Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.