Bourbaki

Exercise 2, § 5

Tag 03IW, permanent. Cite it as [Bourbaki, Tag 03IW].

Theory of Sets, II, 127

Let A, B be two sets. For each subset G of A×B\mathrm{A} \times \mathrm{B} let G~\tilde{\mathrm{G}} be the mapping x→G⟨{x}⟩x \rightarrow \mathrm{G}\langle\{x\}\rangle of A into P(B)\mathfrak{P}(\mathrm{B}). Show that the mapping G→G~\mathrm{G} \rightarrow \tilde{\mathrm{G}} is a bijection of P(A×B)\mathfrak{P}(\mathrm{A} \times \mathrm{B}) onto (P(B))A(\mathfrak{P}(\mathrm{B}))^{\mathrm{A}}.

Solution

This solution was written by nemotron-3-ultra-free and judged by a machine. It is not Bourbaki's and it has not been checked by a person.

Let AA and BB be two sets. For a subset GG of A×BA \times B, the image of {x}\{x\} under the correspondence GG is G⟨{x}⟩={y∈B∣(x,y)∈G}G\langle\{x\}\rangle = \{ y \in B \mid (x, y) \in G \}. We verify that the assignment x↦G⟨{x}⟩x \mapsto G\langle\{x\}\rangle defines a mapping from AA into P(B)\mathfrak{P}(B). For each x∈Ax \in A, G⟨{x}⟩G\langle\{x\}\rangle is a subset of BB, hence an element of P(B)\mathfrak{P}(B). The assignment is functional because each x∈Ax \in A determines a unique set G⟨{x}⟩G\langle\{x\}\rangle. Its graph Φ(G)={(x,G⟨{x}⟩)∣x∈A}\Phi(G) = \{ (x, G\langle\{x\}\rangle) \mid x \in A \} is a subset of A×P(B)A \times \mathfrak{P}(B) and satisfies the condition that for each x∈Ax \in A there is exactly one Y∈P(B)Y \in \mathfrak{P}(B) with (x,Y)∈Φ(G)(x, Y) \in \Phi(G). Therefore Φ(G)\Phi(G) is a functional graph with domain AA and values in P(B)\mathfrak{P}(B), i.e., Φ(G)∈(P(B))A\Phi(G) \in (\mathfrak{P}(B))^A. Thus we have a mapping Φ:P(A×B)→(P(B))A\Phi : \mathfrak{P}(A \times B) \to (\mathfrak{P}(B))^A.

Conversely, let HH be an element of (P(B))A(\mathfrak{P}(B))^A. Then HH is a functional graph with domain AA such that H(x)⊆BH(x) \subseteq B for each x∈Ax \in A. Define Δ(H)={(x,y)∈A×B∣y∈H(x)}\Delta(H) = \{ (x, y) \in A \times B \mid y \in H(x) \}. Clearly Δ(H)⊆A×B\Delta(H) \subseteq A \times B, so Δ(H)∈P(A×B)\Delta(H) \in \mathfrak{P}(A \times B). This defines a mapping Δ:(P(B))A→P(A×B)\Delta : (\mathfrak{P}(B))^A \to \mathfrak{P}(A \times B).

We show that Δ\Delta is the inverse of Φ\Phi.

Take any G∈P(A×B)G \in \mathfrak{P}(A \times B). For (x,y)∈A×B(x, y) \in A \times B we have (x,y)∈Δ(Φ(G))  ⟺  y∈Φ(G)(x)=G⟨{x}⟩  ⟺  (x,y)∈G(x, y) \in \Delta(\Phi(G)) \iff y \in \Phi(G)(x) = G\langle\{x\}\rangle \iff (x, y) \in G. Hence Δ(Φ(G))=G\Delta(\Phi(G)) = G.

Take any H∈(P(B))AH \in (\mathfrak{P}(B))^A. For each x∈Ax \in A, Φ(Δ(H))(x)=Δ(H)⟨{x}⟩={y∈B∣(x,y)∈Δ(H)}={y∈B∣y∈H(x)}=H(x)\Phi(\Delta(H))(x) = \Delta(H)\langle\{x\}\rangle = \{ y \in B \mid (x, y) \in \Delta(H) \} = \{ y \in B \mid y \in H(x) \} = H(x). Since the graphs of two mappings with the same domain are equal when their values coincide everywhere, Φ(Δ(H))=H\Phi(\Delta(H)) = H.

Therefore Φ\Phi is a bijection of P(A×B)\mathfrak{P}(A \times B) onto (P(B))A(\mathfrak{P}(B))^A, and its inverse is Δ\Delta.

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Cites

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Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.