Bourbaki

Exercise 8, § 1

Functions of a Real Variable, II, 80

It is set in small type as supplementary.

Show that there exists a continuous function on [−1,+1][-1, +1] admitting a finite derivative at every point of this interval, this derivative being equal to sin⁡(1sin⁡1/x)\sin \left( \frac{1}{\sin 1/x} \right) at points xx different from 1/nπ1/n\pi (nn an integer ≠0\neq 0) and from 0. (On a neighbourhood of x=1/nπx = 1/n\pi make the change of variable x=1nπ+Arc⁡sin⁡ux = \frac{1}{n\pi + \operatorname{Arc}\sin u} and use exerc. 7; by means of the same change of variable, show that there exists a constant a>0a > 0 independent of nn such that

∣∫2/(2n−1)π2/(2n+1)πsin⁡(1sin⁡1x)dx∣≤an3; \left| \int_{2/(2n-1)\pi}^{2/(2n+1)\pi} \sin \left( \frac{1}{\sin \frac{1}{x}} \right) dx \right| \leq \frac{a}{n^3};

and deduce that if one puts

g(x)=lim⁡ε→0∫x1sin⁡(1sin⁡1t)dt, g(x) = \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0} \int_x^1 \sin \left( \frac{1}{\sin \frac{1}{t}} \right) dt,

then gg has a derivative equal to 0 at the point x=0x = 0.)

Solution

No solution has been written yet.

Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.