Bourbaki

Exercise 5, § 3

Integration, IX, p. 109

Let E be a set, T\mathscr{T} a tribe of subsets of E, m an abstract measure on (E,T)(E, \mathscr{T}), and p≥1p \geq 1 a finite real number. For every numerical function f on E, one sets Np(f)=m∗(∣f∣p)1/pN_p(f) = m^*(|f|^p)^{1/p} and one denotes by Fp\mathscr{F}^p the set of functions f such that Np(f)N_p(f) is finite (cf. §1, Exer. 4). One equips the vector space Fp\mathscr{F}^p with the semi-norm NpN_p, for which it is complete.

a) Let N\mathscr{N} be the set of functions f such that m∗(∣f∣)=0m^*(|f|) = 0, V\mathscr{V} the vector space generated by the finite functions belonging to M\mathscr{M}, and Lp\mathscr{L}^p the smallest closed linear subspace of Fp\mathscr{F}^p containing the characteristic functions of the sets A∈TA \in \mathscr{T} such that m∗(A)m^*(A) is finite. Show that Lp=N+(V∩Fp)\mathscr{L}^p = \mathscr{N} + (\mathscr{V} \cap \mathscr{F}^p).

b) Extend Lebesgue’s theorem (Ch. IV, §3, No. 7, Th. 6) to the present case, and examine in particular the case p=1p = 1 (one will define the integral of a function f∈L1f \in \mathscr{L}^1).

c) A subset AA of EE is said to be mm-integrable if φA∈L1\varphi_A \in \mathscr{L}^1. Show that there then exists a set A′∈TA' \in \mathscr{T} such that m∗(A∩∁A′)=m∗(A′∩∁A)=0m^*(A \cap \complement A') = m^*(A' \cap \complement A) = 0. Converse, in the case that m(E)m(E) is finite.

Solution

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Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.