Bourbaki

Exercise 5, § 1

Tag 00TC, permanent. Cite it as [Bourbaki, Tag 00TC].

Lie Groups and Lie Algebras, VII, 52

Bourbaki marks this one as harder than the rest.

Assume that kk is infinite. Let g\mathfrak{g} be a Lie algebra and V a g\mathfrak{g}-module. If nn is an integer ≥0\geq 0, denote by VnV_n the set of v∈Vv\in V such that xnv=0x^nv= 0 for all x∈gx\in \mathfrak{g}.

a) Show that, if v∈Vn,x,y∈gv\in V_n,x, y\in \mathfrak{g}, then

(∑i=1nxn−iyxi−1)v=0 (\sum_{i=1}^nx^{n-i}yx^{i-1})v= 0

(Use the fact that (x+ty)nv=0(x+ty)^nv= 0 for all t∈k.t\in k.)

Replacing yy by [x,y][x, y] in this formula, deduce3^3 that (xny−yxn)v=0(x^ny-yx^n)v= 0, and hence that xnyv=0x^nyv= 0.

b) Show that VnV_n is a g\mathfrak{g}-submodule of V (use aa))). In particular V0(g)=⋃nVnV^0(\mathfrak{g}) =\bigcup_nV_n is a g\mathfrak{g}-submodule of V.

c) Assume that k=Rk=\mathbf{R} or C\mathbf{C}, and denote by G a simply-connected Lie group with Lie algebra g\mathfrak{g}; the action of g\mathfrak{g} on V defines a law of operation of G on V (Chap. III, §6, no. 1). Show that an element v∈Vv\in V belongs to VnV_n if and only if (s−1)nv=0(s-1)^nv= 0 for all s∈Gs\in G; in particular V0(g)=V1(G)V^0(\mathfrak{g}) = V^1(G).

Solution

No solution has been written yet.

Cited by

Cites

Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.