Bourbaki

Exercise 15, § 6

General Topology, I

Bourbaki marks this one as harder than the rest.

Let n→f(n)n \to f(n) be a mapping of N\mathbf{N} onto N\mathbf{N} such that f−1(m)f^{-1}(m) is finite for each m∈Nm \in \mathbf{N}. If (xn)(x_n) is any sequence in a set XX, put yn=xf(n)y_n = x_{f(n)}. Show that the elementary filters associated with the sequences (xn)(x_n) and (yn)(y_n) are the same.

Deduce that if (an)(a_n) and (bn)(b_n) are two sequences of elements of a set XX such that the filter associated with (bn)(b_n) is finer than the filter associated with (an)(a_n), then the filter associated with (bn)(b_n) is the same as the filter associated with some subsequence of (an)(a_n).

Solution

No solution has been written yet.

Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.