Let vi (1≤i≤n) be ualuations on the jield K and x∈K∗. Then there exists a polynomialf (X) of theform
f(X)=1+n1X+⋯+nk−1Xk−1+Xk(k≥2, nj∈Z for 1≤j≤k−1)
such that f(x)=0 and the element z=f(x)−1 enjoys the following propertiesfor 1≤i≤n:
vi(z)=0ifvi(x)≥0vi(z)+vi(x)>0ifvi(x)<0.
Assuming this lemma for a moment, we show how it implies that A1⊂Bp1. Let x be a non-zero element of Ai. We apply the lemma to x and valuations vi associated with the Ai. Then vi(z)≥0 and vi(zx)≥0 for all i, hence z∈B and zx∈B. As v1(x)≥0, v1(z)=0 and hence z∈/p1. Hence x=zx/z∈Bp1. The field of fractions of B then contains A1 and hence is K.
We now pass to the proof of the lemma. Let I be the set of indices i such that vi(x)≥0. For all i∈I, let xˉi denote the canonical image of x in κ(Ai). For all i∈I we construct a polynomialf, as follows: if there exists a polynomial g(X) of the form (1) such that g(xˉi)=0 in κ(Ai), we takef, to be such a polynomial; otherwise we take fi=1. Then we write f(X)=1+X2∏i∈Ifi(X). It is obviously a polynomial of the form (1). If i∈I, then f(x)∈Ai and alsof (xˉi)=0 by construction; hence f(x)∈/m(Ai), vi(f(x))=0 and v(z)=0. If i∈/I, then vi(x)<0, whence vi(f(x))=kvi(x) (§ 3, no. 1, Proposition 1) and
vi(x)+vi(z)=(1−k)vi(x)>0
(since k≥2). Whence the lemma.
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.