Bourbaki

Exercise 2, § 1

Functions of a Real Variable, I, 35

On the interval I=[0,1]I = [0, 1] we define a sequence of continuous real functions (fn)(f_n) inductively as follows: We take f0(x)=xf_0(x) = x; for each integer n≥1n \geq 1 the function fnf_n is affine linear on each of the 3n3^n intervals [k3n,k+13n]\left[ \frac{k}{3^n}, \frac{k+1}{3^n} \right] for 0≤k≤3n−10 \leq k \leq 3^n - 1; further, we take

fn+1(k3n)=fn(k3n) f_{n+1}\left( \frac{k}{3^n} \right) = f_n\left( \frac{k}{3^n} \right)
fn+1(k3n+13n+1)=fn(k3n+23n+1),fn+1(k3n+23n+1)=fn(k3n+13n+1). f_{n+1}\left( \frac{k}{3^n} + \frac{1}{3^{n+1}} \right) = f_n\left( \frac{k}{3^n} + \frac{2}{3^{n+1}} \right), \quad f_{n+1}\left( \frac{k}{3^n} + \frac{2}{3^{n+1}} \right) = f_n\left( \frac{k}{3^n} + \frac{1}{3^{n+1}} \right).
Show that the sequence (fn)(f_n) converges uniformly on II to a continuous function which has no derivative (finite or infinite) at any point of the interval ]0,1[]0, 1[ (use exerc. 1).

Solution

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Transcribed from the printed volume. Not translated.