Exercise 16, § 1 Functions of a Real Variable, III, 118 Show (by induction on nnn) that D′′(Arctanx)=(−1)n⋅(n−1)!(1+x2)n/2sin(nArctan1x). \mathrm{D}''\left( \operatorname{Arc tan} x \right) = (-1)^n \cdot \frac{(n-1)!}{(1+x^2)^{n/2}} \sin \left( n \operatorname{Arc tan} \frac{1}{x} \right). D′′(Arctanx)=(−1)n⋅(1+x2)n/2(n−1)!sin(nArctanx1). Solution No solution has been written yet.