Bourbaki marks this one as harder than the rest.
Let K be a field of characteristic zero, V a vector space of finite dimension l over K, and G a subgroup of GL(V) generated by pseudo-reflections. Put q=Card(G); denote by S (resp. L) the symmetric algebra (resp. exterior algebra) of V. If x∈V, denote by x (resp. x′) its canonical image in S (resp. L).
a) Let E=S⊗L be the tensor product of S and L. Show that there exists a unique derivation d on E such that dx=x′ and dx′=0 for all x∈V.
b) Let SG be the algebra of symmetric invariants of G and let P1,…,Pl be homogeneous elements of SG such that SG=K[P1,…,Pl]. For every subset I={i1,…,ir} of [1,l] with i1<⋯<ir, put
ωI=dPi1…dPir. Show that the
ωI are linearly independent over
S, and that they belong to the subalgebra
EG consisting of the elements of
E invariant under
G. Deduce that, for all
ω∈EG, there exist
a,cI∈SG, with
a=0, such that
aω=I∑cIωI.
c) Show that every element of EG contained in S⊗⋀lV is of the form c.dP1…dPl, with c∈SG. (Apply Prop. 5.)
d) Show that the ωI form a basis of the SG-module EG. (With the notation in b), multiply both sides of the relation aω=∑IcIωI by an element ωJ, and apply c); deduce that, if I is the complement of J, a divides cI; hence9 the fact that the ωI generate EG.)
e) Let Sn (resp. Lm) be the homogeneous component of S (resp. L) of degree n (resp. m). Put
En,m=Sn⊗Lm,En,mC=EG∩En,m;an,m=dimEn,mC, a(X,Y)=n,m≥0∑an,mXnYm. By using d), prove the formula
a(X,Y)=i=1∏l1−Xpi1+Y.Xpi−1; where
pi=deg(Pi).
(9) For more details, see L. SOLOMON, Invariants of finite reflection groups, Nagoya Math. Journal, v. XXII (1963), p. 57-64.
f) If g∈G, let Trn,m(g) be the trace of the automorphism of En,m defined by g; put
Tr(X,Y)(g)=n,m≥0∑Trn,m(g)XnYm. Show that
Tr(X,Y)(g)=det(1−Xg)det(1+Yg). g) Let
q=Card(G). Show that
q1g∈G∑Tr(X,Y)(g)=a(X,Y), i.e.
q1g∈G∑det(1−Xg)det(1+Yg)=i=1∏l1−Xpi1+Y.Xpi−1. (Use the following result: if
G acts on a finite dimensional vector space
E, the dimension of the space of elements of
E invariant under
G is equal to
q1∑g∈GTrE(g).) What does this formula give for
Y=0? h) For any integer
p≥0, let
Hp be the set of elements
g∈G that have 1 as an eigenvalue with multiplicity
p. Let
hp=Card(Hp). Prove the formula
p=0∑lhpTp=i=1∏l(pi−1+T). (In the formula in g) above, replace
Y by
−1+T(1−X) and then put
X=1 in the result. If
g∈Hp, the term
Tr(X,Y)(g) becomes
Tp.)