Bourbaki

Exercise 3, § 4

General Topology, IV, 388

Let II denote the interval [0,1][0, 1] of R\mathbf{R}, and let ff be a homeomorphism of II onto itself such that f(0)=0f(0) = 0 and f(1)=1f(1) = 1. Show that there is a continuous mapping gg of I×II \times I into II such that: (i) for each x∈Ix \in I, g(x,0)=xg(x, 0) = x and g(x,1)=f(x)g(x, 1) = f(x); (ii) for each y∈Iy \in I the partial mapping x→g(x,y)x \to g(x, y) is a homeomorphism of II onto itself such that g(0,y)=0g(0, y) = 0 and g(1,y)=1g(1, y) = 1.

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