*For every family of elements γi∈Γi (1≤i≤n), there exists x∈K such that vi(x)=γi (1≤i≤n).
We may assume that Ai=K for all i. Then, there exists for all i an ai∈K such that vi(ai)=γi and an ar∈Γr such that γi<ar. We apply Theorem 1 to these elements ai: there exists x∈K such that vi(x−ai)>vi(ai); whence, as x=ai+(x−ai), vi(x)=vi(ai)=γi (§3, no. 1, Proposition 1).
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.