of A-linear mappings, the corresponding sequence of K-linear mappings
E(K)′f(K)E(K)g(K)E(K)′′
is exact.
Suppose that g(K)(λ−1⊗x)=0, with λ∈A,λ=0,x∈E; this is equivalent to λ−1⊗g(x)=0 in E(K)′′ and hence also to
1⊗g(x)=λ(λ−1⊗g(x))=0;
by Proposition 26, there exists α=0 in A such that αg(x)=0 in E′′, or also g(αx)=0. By hypothesis, there is therefore an x′∈E′ such that αx=f(x′) and therefore λ−1⊗x=f(K)(α−1λ−1⊗x′), which proves the proposition.
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.