Corollary 2

Tag 06FJ, permanent. Cite it as [Bourbaki, Tag 06FJ].

— If $a_0$ is the coefficient of $X^m$ in $f$ , we have

\text{dis}_{m+1}(f) = a_0^2 \text{dis}_m(f)

This follows from Cor. 1 on taking $n = 1,\ g = 1$ , by the formula $\operatorname{res}_{m,1}(f,1) = a_0$ (IV, p. 76, Example 1).

Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.

Cited by