Let X be a convex set of the affine space E; and let f be a real-valued function defined over X. Denote the set of points (x,a)∈E×R for which x∈X and f(x)⩽a (resp. x∈X and f(x)<a) by F (resp. F′). Then the following conditions are equivalent:
a) The function f is convex. b) The set F in the affine space E×R is convex. c) The set F′ in the affine space E×R is convex.
We show that a)⇒c). Let (x,a) and (y,b) be two points of F′ and 0<λ<1, then f(x)<a, f(y)<b and if f is convex
f(λx+(1−λ)y)⩽λf(x)+(1−λ)f(y)<λa+(1−λ)b
which shows that the point λ(x,a)+(1−λ)(y,b) of E×R belongs to F′. Thus F′ is convex.
Next we show that c)⇒b). If (x,a),(y,b) are two points of F then for every ε>0, (x,a+ε) and (y,b+ε) belong to F′ and, if 0<λ<1, the same is true of (λx+(1−λ)y,λa+(1−λ)b+ε); by the definition of F this implies that (λx+(1−λ)y,λa+(1−λ)b) belongs to F.
Finally b)⇒a), for (with the above notation), if (λx+(1−λ)y,λa+(1−λ)b) belongs to F then
f(λx+(1−λ)y)⩽λa+(1−λ)b
provided a⩾f(x) and b⩾f(y); hence (1) follows and f is convex.
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.
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