Let f be a finite real function, convex (resp. strictly convex) on an interval I⊂R. For every family (xi)1≤i≤p of p≥2 distinct points of I, and every family (λi)1≤i≤p of p real numbers such that 0<λi<1 and ∑i=1pλi=1, we have
f(i=1∑pλixi)≤i=1∑pλif(xi)
(resp.
f(i=1∑pλixi)<i=1∑pλif(xi)).
Since the proposition (for convex functions) reduces to the inequality (1) for p=2 we argue by induction for p>2. The number μ=∑i=1p−1λi is >0; it is immediate that if a and b are the smallest and largest of the xi then a≤∑i=1p−1λi∑i=1p−1λixi≤b; in other words, the point x=μ1∑i=1p−1λixi belongs to I, and the induction hypothesis implies that μf(x)≤∑i=1p−1λif(xi); moreover we have, from (1), that
f(i=1∑pλixi)=f(μx+(1−μ)xp)≤μf(x)+(1−μ)f(xp)≤i=1∑pλif(xi).
One argues in the same way for strictly convex functions, starting from the inequality (2).
We say that a finite real function f is concave (resp. strictly concave) on I if −f is convex (resp. strictly convex) on I. It comes to the same to say that for every pair (x,x′) of distinct points of I and every λ such that 0<λ<1 one has
f(λx+(1−λ)x′)≥λf(x)+(1−λ)f(x′)
(resp. f(λx+(1−λ)x′)>λf(x)+(1−λ)f(x′)).
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.
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