Two absolute values ∣x∣1,∣x∣2 on a division ring K, neither of which is the improper absolute value, are equivalent if and only if the relation ∣x∣1<1 implies ∣x∣2<1. There exists then a real number ρ>0 such that ∣x∣2=∣x∣1ρ for all x∈K.
The condition is necessary, for the set of all x∈K such that ∣x∣1<1 is the same as the set of all x such that, with respect to the topology defined by the absolute value ∣x∣1, limn→∞xn=0.
Suppose conversely that ∣x∣1<1⟹∣x∣2<1. Then ∣x∣1>1⟹∣x∣2>1, because ∣x−1∣1<1 and therefore ∣x−1∣2<1. Since by hypothesis the absolute value ∣x∣1 is not improper, there exists x0∈K such that ∣x0∣1>1. Let a=∣x0∣1,b=∣x0∣2 and let ρ=logb/loga>0. Let x∈K∗ and put ∣x∣1=∣x0∣1γ. If m and n are integers such that n>0 and m/n>γ, then ∣x∣1<∣x0∣1m/n, and therefore ∣xnx0−m∣1<1; hence ∣xnx0−m∣2<1,∣x∣2<∣x0∣2m/n. Similarly, if m/n<γ, we see that ∣x∣2>∣x0∣2m/n; it follows therefore that ∣x∣2=∣x0∣2γ; in other words
log∣x∣2=γlogb=γρloga=ρlog∣x∣1,
i.e., ∣x∣2=∣x∣1p. It is now clear that the neighbourhoods of zero for the topologies defined on K by ∣x∣1 and ∣x∣2 are identical.
Conversely, if ∣x∣ is any absolute value on K, the function ∣x∣p is an absolute value on K (equivalent to ∣x∣) for all p such that 0<p≤1. We have only to verify the inequality ∣x+y∣p≤∣x∣p+∣y∣p; and since ∣x+y∣p≤(∣x∣+∣y∣)p it is enough to show that, if a>0 and b>0, we have (a+b)p≤ap+bp for any p such that 0<p≤1. If we put c=a/(a+b) and d=b/(a+b), we have c+d=1, and the inequality to be proved is cp+dp≥1; but this follows immediately from the relations cp≥c and dp≥d, which are valid since 0<c≤1, 0<d≤1, 0<p≤1.
Hence the set of values of r>0 such that ∣x∣r is an absolute value is a finite or infinite interval of R with left-hand end-point 0; if it is finite, it is evidently closed; for if we have ∣x+y∣r≤∣x∣r+∣y∣r for any x,y in K and all r such that 0<r<r0, then by continuity the inequality is still valid for r=r0. If ∣x∣r is an absolute value for all r>0, then we have
∣x+y∣≤(∣x∣r+∣y∣r)1/r for all
x and
y in
K and all
r>0. Now, if
a,b are two real numbers
≥0, we have
limr→∞(ar+br)1/c=sup(a,b); for, supposing for example that
a≥b, we have
a≤(ar+br)1/r≤21/ra, and the result follows by letting
r→+∞.
Thus, if ∣x∣r is an absolute value for all r>0, we have
∣x+y∣≤sup(∣x∣,∣y∣) which can be expressed by saying that
v(x)=−log∣x∣ (x=0) is a valuation on
K.
Bourbaki puts the proof directly after the statement, so what is above is the statement and its proof together.
Nothing.